| 1. |
The correct sequence of phases in cell cycle is: 1. 2. 3. 4. |
| Ans. | 1 |
| Sol. |
Page 163, XI NCERT |
| 2. |
During what phase in the cell cycle would you find the most DNA per cell? |
| Ans. | 2 |
| Sol. |
Page 163, XI NCERT |
| 3. |
The figurees below shows 3 phases of mitosis select the option given correct identification together with the correct event ?
1. C- Telophase-Nuclear envelope assembles around the chromosome clusters 2. B- Anaphase-Segregation of homologous chromosomes. 3. A- Prophase-Chromosomes get fully condensed. 4. C- Metaphase-Condensation of chromatin to form chromosome |
| Ans. | 1 |
| Sol. |
Fig.10.2 c to e ;Page 166, XI NCERT |
| 4. |
Major event that occurs during anaphase of mitosis which brings about equal distribution of chromosomes is: 1. Condensation of chromatin 2. Replication of genetic material 3. Splitting of centromere 4. Pairing of homologous chromosomes |
| Ans. | 3 |
| Sol. |
Page 165-166, XI NCERT |
| 5. |
Chromatin condensation and movement of duplicated centriole towards opposite pole can be observed during - 1. Prophase 2. Metaphase 3. Anaphase 4. Telophase |
| Ans. | 1 |
| Sol. |
Page 164, XI NCERT |
| 6. |
Following are the events occurs during meiosis : (A) Appearance of chiasmata (B) Synapsis (C) Assembly of meiotic spindle (D) Use of recombinase enzyme Choose the correct sequence :- 1. A 2. B 3. D 4. B |
| Ans. | 2 |
| Sol. |
Page 168, XI NCERT |
| 7. |
The microtubules from the opposite poles of the spindle attach to the pair of homologous chromosomes in 1. Metaphase - I 2. Prophase - I 3. Metaphase 4. Metaphase - II |
| Ans. | 1 |
| Sol. |
Page 168, XI NCERT |
| 8. |
Each pole receives half the chromosome number of the 2. Anaphase - I 3. Telophase-I 4. Telophase-II |
| Ans. | 2 |
| Sol. |
Page 171, Summary, XI NCERT |
| 9. |
A reduction step during meiosis is important because: (1) It returns the chromosome number to normal before fertilization (2) There is a mechanism for this (3) Only one copy of each chromosome is necessary (4) Otherwise chromosome copies would double each fertilization |
| Ans. | 4 |
| Sol. |
Meiosis ensures the production of haploid phase in the life cycle of sexually reproducing organisms whereas fertilisation restores the diploid phase. We come across meiosis during gametogenesis in plants and animals. This leads to the formation of haploid gametes |
| 10. |
When does Prophase II start usually? (1) Chromosomes are fully elongated (2) Before chromosomes are fully condensed (3) Before chromosomes are fully elongated (4) After chromosomes are fully elongated |
| Ans. | 3 |
| Sol. |
PAGE 169, XI NCERT |
| 11. |
What do A, B, C and D represent in the following figure? (1) A : carrier protein, B : symport, C : uniport, D : antiport (2) A : carrier protein, B : uniport, C : antiport, D : symport (3) A : carrier protein, B : antiport, C : symport, D : uniport (4) A : carrier protein, B : uniport, C : symport, D : antiport |
| Ans. | 2 |
| Sol. |
Page-177, XI NCERT |
| 12. |
Apply concept of water potential and osmosis Solution of which chamber has a lower solute potential? (1) Chamber A (2) Chamber B (3) Both will have equal values (4) Cannot be predicted |
| Ans. | 2 |
| Sol. |
XI NCERT Page-180 |
| 13. |
Select the correct statement:- 1. Pue water has minimum 2. Pure water has maximum 3. Pure water has maximum DPD 4. Pure water has variable DPD |
| Ans. | 2 |
| Sol. |
Page 179, XI NCERT |
| 14. |
Movement of molecule across a typical plant cell i.e. 50 micrometer takes (1) 10 seconds (2) 15 seconds (3) 2.5 seconds (4) 16 seconds |
| Ans. | 3 |
| Sol. |
Page number-183, XI NCERT |
| 15. |
Consider the following statements: I. The apoplast system is continuous throughout the plant, except at the casparian strips of the endodermis.
III.A 1. I and II only 2. I and III only 3. II and III only 4. I, II and III |
| Ans. | 1 |
| Sol. |
Page 184, 189 XI NCERT |
| 16. |
Transpiration 1. Loss of water in soil 2. Loss of minerals in soil 3. Loss of water to the air from the leaves 4. Loss of organic substances because of photorespiration |
| Ans. | 3 |
| Sol. |
Para-3, Page-187, XI NCERT |
| 17. |
The process responsible for facilitating loss of water in liquid form from the tip of grass blades at night and early morning is: 1. Root pressure 2. Imbibition 3. Plasmolysis 4. Transpiration |
| Ans. | 1 |
| Sol. |
Page 186, XI NCERT |
| 18. |
Consider the following two statements: I. The direction of movement in the phloem is bi-directional. II. The source-sink relationship in plants is variable. 1. Both I and II are correct and II explains I 2. Both I and II are correct but II does not explain I 3. I is correct but II is incorrect 4. Both I and II are incorrect |
| Ans. | 1 |
| Sol. |
page 190, XI NCERT |
| 19. |
Prehistoric man used which of the following methods to split rocks and boulders? (1) Plasmolysis (2) Active Transport (3) Osmosis (4) Imbibition |
| Ans. | 4 |
| Sol. |
Page number-183, XI NCERT |
| 20. |
ln above diagram A is having :- (1) Hypotonic solution (2) Hypertonic solution (3) Low (4) Both B & C correct |
| Ans. | 4 |
| Sol. |
Page 181-182, XI NCERT |
| 21. |
Alcohol Dehydrogenase needs which of the following ion for activation? (1) Zn++ (2) Mo (3) Cr (4) Mg++ |
| Ans. | 1 |
| Sol. |
Page number-196, XI NCERT |
| 22. |
In the given diagram of a typical set up for nutrient solution culture, the purpose of X is: |
| Ans. | 4 |
| Sol. |
Page 195 XI NCERT |
| 23. |
Deficiency symptoms of an element tend to appear first in young leaves. It indicates that the element is relatively immobile. Which one of the following elemental deficiency would show such symptoms? 1. Sulphur 2. Magnesium 3. Nitrogen 4. Potassium |
| Ans. | 1 |
| Sol. |
Page 198, XI NCERT |
| 24. |
Which of the following is not associated with potassium ions? (1) Maintain anion-cation balance in cells (2) Involved in protein synthesis (3) Involved in opening and closing of stomata and activation of enzyme (4) Maintenance of the turgidity of the cells and all phosphorespiration reactions |
| Ans. | 4 |
| Sol. |
Page number-197, XI NCERT |
| 25. |
If by radiation all nitrogenase enzyme are inactivated, then there will be no :- (1) Fixation of atmospheric nitrogen (2) Conversion from nitrate to nitrite in legumes (3) Conversion from ammonium to nitrate in soil (4) Fixation of nitrogen in legumes |
| Ans. | 4 |
| Sol. |
Page 202, XI NCERT |
| 26. |
Which of the following is an amide involved in nitrogen metabolism by plants? 1. Methionine 2. Cysteine 3. Serine 4. Asparagine |
| Ans. | 4 |
| Sol. |
Page 204, XI NCERT |
| 27. |
(a) Soil are reservoir of all mineral elements that are essential for the proper growth and development of plants. (b) Initial uptake of minerals into the symplast is slow (c) Uptake of minerals in inner space is rapid 1. All are correct 2. Only (a) is incorrect 3. (b) & (c) are incorrect 4. Only (c) is incorrect |
| Ans. | 4 |
| Sol. |
Page 200, XI NCERT |
| 28. |
The main amino acid over which Transamination occurs. (1) Glutamate (2) Alanine (3) Glycine (4) Lysine |
| Ans. | 1 |
| Sol. |
Page number-204 12.6 Metabolism of Nitrogen |
| 29. |
Plants obtain Iron in the form of (1) Ferric ions (2) Ferrous ions (3) FeO (4) Both B and C |
| Ans. | 1 |
| Sol. |
Page number-197, XI NCERT |
| 30. |
Which of the following statement is correct? |
| Ans. | 1 |
| Sol. |
Page 208 XI NCERT |
| 31. |
In the given graph what does A, B represent? 1. A - Absorption spectrum; B - Action spectrum (Chl. a). 2. A - Action spectrum; B - Absorption spectrum (carotenoids). 3. A - Absorption spectrum; B - Action spectrum (Ch. b). 4. A - Action spectrum; B - Absorption spectrum (Ch.a). |
| Ans. | 4 |
| Sol. |
Page 210, XI NCERT |
| 32. |
Cyclic photophosphorylation is different from non-cyclic photophosphorylation as the former 1. Is performed by a collaboration of both PS-II and PS-I 2. Does not require any external source of electrons 3. Is connected with photolysis of water 4. Is connected with ATP and NADPH production |
| Ans. | 2 |
| Sol. |
Page 213, XI NCERT |
| 33. |
The synthesis of one molecule of glucose during the Calvin cycle requires. 1. 12 molecules of ATP and 18 molecules of 2. 6 molecules of ATP and 12 molecules of 3. 18 molecules of ATP and 12 molecules of 4. 12 molecules of each of ATP and |
| Ans. | 3 |
| Sol. |
Page 218, XI NCERT |
| 34. |
In C 1. Mesophyll cells 2. In bundle sheath cells 3. In spongy parenchyma 4. Both A & B |
| Ans. | 2 |
| Sol. |
Page 219, XI NCERT |
| 35. |
A plant in your garden avoids photorespiratory losses, has improved water use efficiency, shows high rates of photosynthesis at high temperatures and has improved efficiency of nitrogen utilization. In which of the following physiological groups would you assign this plant? (1) C4 (2) CAM (3) Nitrogen-fixer (4) C3 |
| Ans. | 1 |
| Sol. |
Page 218, XI NCERT |
| 36. |
Identify the symbols A, B and C in the figure given below
1. (1) 2. (2) 3. (3) 4. (4) |
||||||||||||||||||||
| Ans. | 4 | ||||||||||||||||||||
| Sol. |
Page 163, XI NCERT |
| 37. |
A stage in cell division is shown in the figure. Select the answer which gives correct identification of the stage with its characteristics. 1. Telophase - Nuclear envelope reforms, Golgi complex reforms 2. Late anaphase - Chromosomes move away from equatorial plate, Golgi complex not present 3. Cytokinesis - Cell plate formed, mitochondria distributed between two daughter cells 4. Telophase - Endoplasmic reticulum and nucleolus not reformed yet |
| Ans. | 1 |
| Sol. |
PAGE 166, XI NCERT |
| 38. |
“The synaptonemal complex is formed during _A_ |
| Ans. | 3 |
| Sol. |
Page 168, XI NCERT |
| 39. |
In the diagram given below showing the pathway of water movement in the root, A, B, C and D respectively represent: |
| Ans. | 3 |
| Sol. |
Page 185, XI NCERT |
| 40. |
Which of the following facilitates opening of stomatal aperture? 1. Decrease in turgidity of guard cells 2. Radial orientation of cellulose microfibrils in the cell wall of guard cells. 3. Longitudinal orientation of cellulose microfibrils in the cell wall of guard cells 4. Contraction of outer wall of guard cells |
| Ans. | 2 |
| Sol. |
PAGE 187, XI NCERT |
| 41. |
The incorrect statement for facilitated diffusion is 2. Can cause net transport of molecules from a low 3. It is very specific, it allows cell to select substances 4. Transport rate reaches a maximum when all of |
| Ans. | 2 |
| Sol. |
Page 176, XI NCERT |
| 42. |
A mature corn plant absorbs…….. of water in a day while a mustard plant absorbs water equal to its own weight in about…….. 1. 5L, 3hours 2. 3L, 5 hours 3. 5L, 5 hours 4. 3L, 3 hours |
| Ans. | 2 |
| Sol. |
Page number-179, XI NCERT |
| 43. |
The criteria for essentiality of an element for a plant include all except: |
| Ans. | 4 |
| Sol. |
Page 195, XI NCERT |
| 44. |
Julius Von Sachs 1. A prominent German Botanist |
| Ans. | 4 |
| Sol. |
Page number-194, XI NCERT |
| 45. |
The deficiency symptoms of mobilizable substances appear first in Older parts because (1) In order to mobilize the elements to young part, the biomolecules of older parts are broken down (2) In order to mobilize the elements the older part becomes weaker (3) The work of mobilization is random and takes a lot of energy to cause it (4) All of these |
| Ans. | 1 |
| Sol. |
Page number-198, XI NCERT |
| 46. |
Nitrification does not include (1) Conversion of ammonia to nitrite (2) Conversion of nitrite to nitrate (3) Conversion of nitrogen to ammonia (4) Both B and C |
| Ans. | 3 |
| Sol. |
Page number-201, XI NCERT |
| 47. |
Match the following concerning essential elements and their functions in plants : (a) Iron (i) Photolysis of water (b) Zinc (ii) Pollen germination (c) Boron (iii) Required for chlorophyll biosynthesis (d) Manganese (iv) IAA biosynthesis Select the correct option: (a) (b) (c) (d) 1. (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) 2. (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) 3. (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) 4. (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) |
| Ans. | 2 |
| Sol. |
Page 197-198, XI NCERT |
| 48. |
According to the chemiosmotic hypothesis, there is a basic difference between respiration and photosynthesis. This is _____ 1. In chloroplast, H+ accumulation takes place in the lumen of thylakoid but in mitochondria, this takes place in perimitochondrial space. 2. Accumulation of H+ in chloroplast takes place in matrix i.e., stroma and in mitochondria, this takes place in cristae. 3. In both the mitochondria and chloroplast the accumulation of H+ takes place in inter-membranous space but with a high rate in mitochondria 4. Both 1 and 3 are correct. |
| Ans. | 1 |
| Sol. |
Page 213, XI NCERT |
| 49. |
What is incorrect about bundle sheath cells- |
| Ans. | 3 |
| Sol. |
Page 218 XI NCERT |
| 50. |
How many statements are correct? |
| Ans. | 1 |
| Sol. |
Page 209, XI NCERT |
| 51. |
In mammals, the teeth are. These conditions are respectively referred as |
| Ans. | 2 |
| Sol. |
PAGE 257 and 258, XI NCERT |
| 52. |
Brunner's gland are characteristic feature of:- (1) jejunum of small intestine (2) ileum (3) duodenum (4) fundic region of stomach |
| Ans. | 3 |
| Sol. |
Last paragraphs, PAGE 259 and 262, XI NCERT |
| 53. |
Mark the incorrect match regarding the process involved |
| Ans. | 1 |
| Sol. |
Page 264, XI NCERT |
| 54. |
In the given diagram showing anatomical regions of the human stomach, A,B and C respectively represent :
1. Fundus, Cardia and Pylorus 2. Cardia, Pylorus and Fundus 3. Fundus, Pylorus and Cardia 4. Pylorus, Cardia and Fundus |
| Ans. | 1 |
| Sol. |
Page 259, XI NCERT |
| 55. |
Which of the following structures prevents the back flow of faecal matter? (1) Cardiac sphincter (2) Pyloric sphincter (3) lleo-caecal value (4) Sphincter of Oddi |
| Ans. | 3 |
| Sol. |
Page 264, XI NCERT |
| 56. |
Which of the following is true about digestion and absorption of food? (1) Trypsin, chymotrypsin and carboxypeptidase are brush border enzymes (2) The chemical process of digestion is initiated in the oral cavity. About 60% Starch is hydrolysed here by salivary amylase to form maltose (3) Rennin is a proteolytic enzyme found in gastric juice of infants. Small amount of lipases are also secreted by the gastric glands (4) If breast feeding is replaced by less nutritive food low in proteins and calories, the infants below the age of one year will suffer from Kwashiorkar |
| Ans. | 3 |
| Sol. |
Page 262, XI NCERT |
| 57. |
In jaundice - what is not observed? (1) Liver is affected (2) Skin and eyes turn yellow because of deposition of bile salts (3) Spreads due to contaminated water (4) More than one option is correct. |
| Ans. | 2 |
| Sol. |
NCERT page number 265. |
| 58. |
Match the items given in Column - I with those in Column - II and choose the correct option.
1. (a) - (iii), (b)- (iv), (c)- (ii), (d)-(i) 2. (a) - (iv), (b)- (iii), (c)- (i), (d)-(ii) 3. (a) - (iv), (b)- (iii), (c)- (ii), (d)-(i) 4. (a) - (iii), (b)- (iv), (c)- (i), (d)-(ii) |
||||||||||||||||||||
| Ans. | 4 | ||||||||||||||||||||
| Sol. |
Page 262, XI NCERT |
| 59. |
Which of the following enzyme is not included in the secretions of the brush border cells of mucosa? (1) Maltase (2) Dipetidase (3) Nucleosidease (4) Carboxypeptidase |
| Ans. | 4 |
| Sol. |
Page 262, XI NCERT |
| 60. |
When breast feeding is replaced by less nutritive food low in proteins and calories; the infants below the age of one year are likely to suffer from 1. marasmus 2. rickets 3. kwashiorkor 4. pellagra |
| Ans. | 1 |
| Sol. |
PAGE 266, XI NCERT |
| 61. |
Match the column I with column II :- 1. (i)-a, (ii)-c, (iii)-b, (iv)-d |
| Ans. | 3 |
| Sol. |
Page 265, XI NCERT |
| 62. |
Carrier proteins faciliate the absorption of substance like 1. amino acids and glucose 2. glucose and fatty acids 3. fatty acids and glycerol 4. fructose and some amino acids |
| Ans. | 1 |
| Sol. |
PAGE 264, XI NCERT |
| 63. |
Which of the following is true about epiglottis |
| Ans. | 4 |
| Sol. |
NCERT, Heading 17.1.1, para 1, page-269. |
| 64. |
Choose the wrong statement |
| Ans. | 2 |
| Sol. |
NCERT, Introduction, para 1, page 268. |
| 65. |
By the contration in radial muscle of diaphragm it become flattened in shape, so, volume of thoracic cavity increases in :- 1. Anterior-posterior axis 2. Dorsal-ventral axis 3. Anterior-lateral axis 4. Dorsal-lateral axis |
| Ans. | 1 |
| Sol. |
Page 270, XI NCERT |
| 66. |
The amount of air that enters the lungs during normal, restful breathing is called the______. 1. Vital capacity 2. Tidal volume 3. Total lung capacity 4. Expiratory reserve volume |
| Ans. | 2 |
| Sol. |
Page 271, XI NCERT |
| 67. |
Total volume of air a person can expire after a normal inspiration is A. Tidal volume B. TV + ERV C. Expiratory capacity D. ERV + RV 1. A only 2. B & C only 3. A, B & C only 4. A,B,C & D |
| Ans. | 2 |
| Sol. |
Page 272, XI NCERT |
| 68. |
Diffusion membrane consists of 1. Squamous epithelium of alveoli 2. endothelium of alveolar capillaries 3. Basement substance between them 4. All of the above |
| Ans. | 4 |
| Sol. |
NCERT, Heading 17.3, page-273 |
| 69. |
Given below a diagram of a section of an alveolus 1. Diffusion of O2 and CO2 2. O2 will diffuse faster from A to B than CO2 3. Only O2 will diffuse from A to B not CO2 |
| Ans. | 2 |
| Sol. |
Page 273, XI NCERT |
| 70. |
Which of the following statements is correct regarding 1. 100 ml of oxygenated blood carries 53 ml of 2. 100 ml of blood always transport equal amounts of 3. 100 ml of oxygenated blood delivers more 4. |
| Ans. | 3 |
| Sol. |
Page 274-275, XI NCERT |
| 71. |
Which of the following match is correct? 1. Emphysema : reduction of surface area of alveoli and bronchi 2. Pneumonia : occupational disease with asbestos 3. Silicosis : inflammation of alveoli 4. Asthma : excessive secretion of bronchial mucus |
| Ans. | 1 |
| Sol. |
PAGE 275, XI NCERT |
| 72. |
Every 2000 mL of deoxygenated blood delivers approximately, how much mL CO 1. 4 mL 2. 4.2 mL 3. 8 mL 4. 80 mL |
| Ans. | 4 |
| Sol. |
Page 275, XI NCERT |
| 73. |
Bulk of carbon dioxide (CO2) released from |
| Ans. | 2 |
| Sol. |
Page 274, XI NCERT |
| 74. |
A center that moderates the functions of the respiratory rhythm center is located in: 1. Dorsal medulla oblongata 2. Ventral medulla oblongata 3. Pons Varolii 4. Pre central gyrus of the cerebrum |
| Ans. | 3 |
| Sol. |
Read page 275, Para-2, XI NCERT. |
| 75. |
Which of the following cell will play a role in resistance of infection and allergic reaction? (1) Eosinophil (2) Basophil (3) Lymphocyte (4) Neutrophils |
| Ans. | 1 |
| Sol. |
PAGE 279-280, XI NCERT |
| 76. |
Choose the incorrect match w.r.t blood components 1. Leucocytes – 6000 - 8000 mm–3 2. Globulins – Involved in defence mechanisms 3. O– blood group – Antibodies A and B absent 4. Thrombokinase – Converts prothrombin into thrombin |
| Ans. | 3 |
| Sol. |
Table 18.1 Page 280, XI NCERT |
| 77. |
Erythroblastosis fetalis can be prevented during a second pregnancy in a Rh negative mother who is likely to carry a Rh positive fetus by: 1. Administering anti – Rh antibodies to the mother just before the delivery of the second child 2. Administering Rh antigen to the mother just after the delivery of the first child 3. Administering Rh antigen to the mother just before the delivery of the second child 4. Administering anti – Rh antibodies to the mother just after the delivery of the first child |
| Ans. | 4 |
| Sol. |
Page 281, XI NCERT |
| 78. |
Fibrins are formed by conversion of _______ in _______ by the enzyme _______ (1) Fibrinogen, serum, Thrombokinase (2) prothrombin, plasma, thrombin (3) Fibrinogen, plasma, thrombin (4) Prothrombin, blood, thrombokinase |
| Ans. | 3 |
| Sol. |
PAGE 281, XI NCERT |
| 79. |
The inter-atrial septum in the human heart can be best described as: 1. A thin muscular wall 2. A thick muscular wall 3. A thin fibrous tissue 4. A thick fibrous tissue |
| Ans. | 1 |
| Sol. |
Read page 283, XI NCERT |
| 80. |
The passage of blood from left atrium to body is (1) left atrium – left ventricle – Aorta – Body (2) left atrium – right ventricle – Aorta – Body (3) left atrium – left ventricle – Pulmonary Artery – Body (4) left atrium – left ventricle – Pulmonary Veins – Body |
| Ans. | 1 |
| Sol. |
XI NCERT, fig.18.4. P -286-287, Double Circulation |
| 81. |
The pumping pressure of healthy heart is (1) 120 mmHg (2) 80 mmHg (3) 140 mmHg (4) 90 mmHg |
| Ans. | 1 |
| Sol. |
(1) XI NCERT, P-287 Disorders of Circulatory System |
| 82. |
Which of the following sequences best represents the pathway of an action potential through the Heart's conduction system? (i) Sino-atrial (SA) node (ii) Purkinje fibres (iii) Bundle of His (iv) Atrio-ventricular (AV) node (v) Right and left bundle branches 1. (i),(iv),(iii),(ii),(v) 2. (iv), (i),(iii),(v),(ii) 3. (iii),(iv),(i),(ii),(v) 4. (i),(iv),(iii),(v),(ii) |
| Ans. | 4 |
| Sol. |
Page 284, XI NCERT |
| 83. |
In ECG the ventricular contraction occurs 1. Just after P wave and before Q wave. 2. Just after Q wave but before T wave. 3. In between S-T segment. 4. After the end of T wave. |
| Ans. | 2 |
| Sol. |
PAGE 286, XI NCERT |
| 84. |
Consider the following four statements (a-d) and select the option which includes all the correct :- (a) Coronary Artery disease, (CAD) often referred (b) Heart failure means when the heart muscle is (c) High blood pressure leads to heart diseases and (d) Angina occurs due to conditions that affect the Options : 1. Statements (b), (c) and (d). |
| Ans. | 4 |
| Sol. |
Page 288, XI NCERT |
| 85. |
Read the following statements:- (1) Lymph is devoid of RBC How many statements are correct? 1. 2 2. 3 3. 4 4. 1 |
| Ans. | 2 |
| Sol. |
Page 282, XI NCERT |
| 86. |
Which of the following are not correct: (i) Spleen is the graveyard for RBC (ii) All the mammals have biconcave RBCs (iii) Clotting factors present in plasma are in active form. (iv) All the substances released by platelets are involved in clotting only. (1) (i), (iii), (iv) (2) (ii), (iii), (iv) (3) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) (4) (ii), (iii) |
| Ans. | 2 |
| Sol. |
NCERT, P -279, Formed Elements, Para-1 |
| 87. |
Which of the following reactions is not catalysed by a brush border enzyme? (1) Maltose (2) Lactose (3) Starch (4) Nucleotides
|
| Ans. | 3 |
| Sol. |
Page 263, XI NCERT |
| 88. |
Which of the following do not belong to category of brush border enzymes? 1. Lactase, nucleotidase 2. Aminopeptidase, sucrase 3. Procarboxypeptidase, steapsin 4. Nucleosidase, maltase |
| Ans. | 3 |
| Sol. |
Page 262, XI NCERT |
| 89. |
Which of the following is not the function of the large intestine? 1. Absorption of some water, minerals and certain drugs 2. Nutrient absorption 3. Secretion of mucus to lubricate feces 4. The temporary storage of feces in rectum |
| Ans. | 2 |
| Sol. |
Page 264, XI NCERT |
| 90. |
How many of the following statements are wrong? a. The bile duct and the pancreatic duct open together into the duodenum as the common hepato-pancreatic duct which is guarded by sphincter of Boyden. b. The parotid, sub-maxillary and sub-lingual salivary glands are located just outside the buccal cavity. c. In duodenum, glands are only found in submucoas which are Brunner's glads, a type of simple branched tubular glands. d. There is no modification of the four layers namely serosa, muscularis, sub-mucosa and mucosa in differnt parts of alimentary canal. e. lipases are absent in secreation of gastric glands. (1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Four |
| Ans. | 4 |
| Sol. |
Page 259-262, XI NCERT |
| 91. |
Which of the following is not observed in Diarrhoea? (1) Abnormal frequency of bowl movement (2) Increased liquidity of faecal discharge (3) Reduction of Absorption of food (4) Reduction of digestion of food |
| Ans. | 4 |
| Sol. |
NCERT page number 265 |
| 92. |
In the given figure, identify the muscles involved in raising the rib cage 1. External intercostals 2. Internal intercostals 3. External obliques 4. Abdominal recti |
| Ans. | 1 |
| Sol. |
Page 270-271, XI NCERT |
| 93. |
The partial pressure of 1. 40 mmHg and 45 mmHg 2. 100 mmHg and 45 mmHg 3. 95 mmHg and 40 mmHg 4. 45 mmHg and 40 mmHg |
| Ans. | 3 |
| Sol. |
Table 17.1 and Fig.17.2 Page 272-273, XI NCERT |
| 94. |
Which of the following statements are correct w.r.t. transportation of gases? A. Blood transport B. C. 20-25 percent D. Oxyhaemoglobin of erythrocytes is basic in nature and it increases pH of blood 1. A only 2. A & B only 3. A, B & C only 4. A, B, C & D |
| Ans. | 3 |
| Sol. |
Page 273-275, XI NCERT |
| 95. |
Read the following four statements (a-d) and select 1. b, c and d |
| Ans. | 1 |
| Sol. |
Page 270- 272 and 276, XI NCERT |
| 95. |
Choose the incorrect statement 1. Every 100 ml of deoxygenated blood delivers approximately 4 ml of CO2 to the alveoli 2. Carbonic anhydrase is present in very high concentration in RBC 3. High pCO2 and low pO2 in tissues help in binding of carbon dioxide 4. CO2 is carried in haemoglobin as carboxyhaemoglobin |
| Ans. | 4 |
| Sol. |
Page 274-275, XI NCERT |
| 96. |
Which of the following does not shift the oxy-haemoglobin dissociation curve to the right? 1. increased pH 2. increased carbon dioxide 3. increased temperature 4. increased 2,3 -DPG |
| Ans. | 1 |
| Sol. |
PAGE 274, XI NCERT |
| 97. |
Choose the incorrect match stops beating (2) T-wave – Represents depolarization of ventricles (3) SAN – Generates maximum (4) P-wave – Represents contraction of both atria |
| Ans. | 2 |
| Sol. |
Page 286, XI NCERT |
| 98. |
What is the effect of parasympathetic neural signals on Heart Activity? (1) decreases the rate of heart beat (2) decreases the speed of conduction of action potential (3) decreases the cardiac output (4) all of these |
| Ans. | 4 |
| Sol. |
(4) XI NCERT, P-287 Regulation of Cardiac Activity |
| 99. |
In a mm3 of blood, the maximum number and minimum number of cells would be respectively 1. WBCs, RBCs 2. RBCs, WBCs 3. RBCs, Platelets 4. Platelets, WBCs |
| Ans. | 2 |
| Sol. |
Heading 18.1.2, Page 279, 280, XI NCERT |
| 100. |
Serum is- (1) Blood (2) Blood (3) Plasma (4) Both (2) and (3) |
| Ans. | 2 |
| Sol. |
Page 282, XI NCERT |
| 151. |
The number of σ and π bonds in the molecule 1. 6 C – C sigma ( 2. 6 C – C sigma ( 3. 6 C – C sigma ( 4. 6 C – C sigma (
|
| Ans. | 3 |
| Sol. |
| 152. |
The IUPAC name of the above-mentioned compound is - 1. cis-2-Chloro-3-iodo-2-pentene |
| Ans. | 2 |
| Sol. |
| 153. |
The pair of structures that does not represent isomers is - 1. 2. 3. 4. |
| Ans. | 4 |
| Sol. |
| 154. |
The structure of diphenylmethane is given below:
The number of structural isomers possible when one of the hydrogen atom is replaced by a chlorine atom is - 1. 6 2. 4 3. 8 4. 7 |
| Ans. | 2 |
| Sol. |
| 155. |
The most stable carbocation among the following is- |
| Ans. | 2 |
| Sol. |
| 156. |
The correct order of acidity among the following is- 1. CH2=CH2 > CH3-CH=CH2 > CH3C≡CH > CH≡CH 2. CH≡CH > CH3-C≡CH > CH2=CH2 > CH3 CH3 3. CH≡CH > CH2=CH2 > CH3-C≡CH > CH3-CH3 4. CH3-CH3 > CH2=CH2 > CH3-C≡CH > CH≡CH |
| Ans. | 2 |
| Sol. |
| 157. |
Most probable mechanism for this reaction is- 1. E1 2. E2 3. 4. |
| Ans. | 2 |
| Sol. |
| 158. |
An organic compound contains 69% carbon, and 4.8% hydrogen, the remainder being 1. 0.506 g , 0.0864 g 2. 0.906 g , 0.0864 g 3. 0.0506 g , 0.864 g 4. 0.0864 g, 0.506 g |
| Ans. | 1 |
| Sol. |
| 159. |
Match Column I with Column II.
Codes A B C D 1. 3 4 1 2 2. 1 2 3 4 3. 1 4 3 2 4. 4 1 3 2 |
||||||||||
| Ans. | 1 | ||||||||||
| Sol. |
| 160. |
The correct IUPAC name of the given compound is- 1. 3-Ethyl-4-ethenylheptane 2. 3-Ethyl-4-propylhex-5-ene 3. 3-(1-Ethyl propyl) hex-1-ene 4. 4-Ethyl-3-propylhex-1-ene |
| Ans. | 4 |
| Sol. |
| 161. |
The final product in the above sequence of reactions is-
|
| Ans. | 2 |
| Sol. |
| 162. |
The most suitable reagent among the following is used to distinguish compound (III) from the rest of the compounds is - I. II. III. IV. 1. 2. 3. Alk. 4. Ammoniacal |
| Ans. | 4 |
| Sol. |
| 163. |
The correct order of relatives rates of hydrogenation of alkenes is 1. Ethylene > propene > 2-butene > 2-methyl-2-butene 2. 2-methyl-2-butene > 2-butene > Propene > Ethylene 3. 2-butene > propene > ethylene > 2-methyl-2-butene 4. Propene > 2-butene > ethylene > 2-methyl-2-butene |
| Ans. | 1 |
| Sol. |
| 164. |
Arrange the following carbanions in order of their decreasing stability. A. B. C. 1. A>B>C 2. B>A>C 3. C>B>A 4. C>A>B |
| Ans. | 2 |
| Sol. |
| 165. |
The product (B) in the above mentioned reaction is - 1. 2. 3. 4.
|
| Ans. | 2 |
| Sol. |
| 166. |
Nitrobenzene on reaction with conc. HNO3/H2SO4 at 80-100 1. 1,2-Dinitrobenzene 2. 1,3-Dinitrobenzene 3. 1,4-Dinitrobenzene 4. 1,2,4-Trinitrobenzene |
| Ans. | 2 |
| Sol. |
| 167. |
Benzene reacts with CH3Cl in the presence of anhydrous AlCl3 to form- 1. Toluene 2. Chlorobenzene 3. Benzylchloride 4. Xylene |
| Ans. | 1 |
| Sol. |
| 168. |
The reaction/s involved during the formation of photochemical smog are: 4. All of the above |
| Ans. | 4 |
| Sol. |
| 169. |
An incorrect statement regarding acid rain is : 1. It is formed due to the reaction of 2. Causes no damage to monuments like the Taj Mahal. 3. It is harmful to plants. 4. Its pH is less than 5.6 |
| Ans. | 2 |
| Sol. |
| 170. |
The ozone layer of the upper atmosphere is being destroyed by : 1. Sulphur dioxide 2. Carbon dioxide 3. Chlorofluorocarbon 4. Smog |
| Ans. | 3 |
| Sol. |
| 171. |
Green chemistry means such reactions that- 1. Produce colour during reactions. 2. Reduce the use and production of hazardous chemicals. 3. Are related to the depletion of the ozone layer. 4. Study the reactions in plants.
|
| Ans. | 2 |
| Sol. |
| 172. |
Photochemical smog formed in congested metropolitan cities mainly consists of : 1. Ozone, SO2, and hydrocarbons 2. Ozone, PAN, and NO2 3. PAN, smoke and SO2 4. Hydrocarbons, SO2, and CO2 |
| Ans. | 2 |
| Sol. |
| 173. |
A farmer was told that fishes were not fit for human consumption because a large amount of pesticides had accumulated in the tissues of fishes. This happen : 1. By transfer of pesticides in the food chain. 2. By degradation of pesticides. 3. By the reaction of pesticides with atmospheric oxygen. 4. By the reaction of pesticides with atmospheric carbon dioxide. |
| Ans. | 1 |
| Sol. |
| 174. |
Match the pollutant (s) in Column I with effect (s) in Column II.
Codes A B C D 1. 2 3 4 1 2. 1 2 3 4 3. 1 4 3 2 4. 4 1 2 3 |
||||||||||
| Ans. | 4 | ||||||||||
| Sol. |
| 175. |
The chemical that is an excellent ‘green’ solvent as well as a greenhouse gas : 1. Methanol 2. CFCs 3. Carbon monoxide 4. Carbon Dioxide |
| Ans. | 4 |
| Sol. |
| 176. |
Assertion: The stability of a crystal is reflected by the magnitude of its melting point. Reason: Greater the intermolecular forces of attraction, the more will be the stability and melting point of the substance. 1. Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion. |
| Ans. | 1 |
| Sol. |
| 177. |
TiO2 is a well-known example of: 1. Triclinic system. 2. Tetragonal system. 3. Monoclinic system. 4. None of the above. |
| Ans. | 2 |
| Sol. |
| 178. |
CsBr crystallises in a body centred cubic lattice. The unit cell length is 436.6 pm. Given that the atomic mass of Cs = 133 and that of Br = 80 amu and Avogadro number being 6.02×1023 mol-1, the density of CsBr is : 1. 42.5 2. 0.425 3. 8.25 4. 4.25 |
| Ans. | 4 |
| Sol. |
| 179. |
In a compound, atoms of element Y form ccp lattice, and those of element X occupy 2/3rd of tetrahedral voids. The formula of the compound will be :- 2. X4Y3 3. X2Y3 4. X2Y |
| Ans. | 2 |
| Sol. |
| 180. |
The density of KCl is 1.9893 g cm-3 and the length of a side unit cell is 6.29082 Å as determined by X-ray diffraction. The value of Avogadro’s number calculated from these data is:- 2. 6.023 x 1022 3. 7.03 x 1023 4. 6.01 x 1019 |
| Ans. | 1 |
| Sol. |
| 181. |
A ferric oxide crystallizes in a hexagonal close-packed array of oxide ions with two out of every three octahedral holes occupied by ferric ions. The formula of the ferric oxide is- 1. FeO 2. Fe2O3 3. Fe3O4 4. Fe3O2 |
| Ans. | 2 |
| Sol. |
| 182. |
A: In hcp structure, each sphere is surrounded by eight other spheres. R: ABC, ABC ................................ represents hcp structure. 1. Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion. 2. Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion. 3. Assertion is true statement but Reason is false. 4. Both Assertion and Reason are false statements. |
| Ans. | 4 |
| Sol. |
| 183. |
Higher conductivity of p-type and n-type semiconductors is due to : 1. Increase in the number of positive holes and mobile electrons respectively . 2. Increase in the number of electrons in both types of semiconductors. 3. Increase in the number of positive-holes in both types of semiconductors. 4. None of the above. |
| Ans. | 1 |
| Sol. |
| 184. |
A: LiCl shows pink colour, when heated in presence of lithium vapours. R: LiCl shows Frenkel defect. 1. Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion. 2. Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion. 3. Assertion is true statement but Reason is false. 4. Both Assertion and Reason are false statements. |
| Ans. | 3 |
| Sol. |
| 185. |
Consider the following statements about semiconductor.: I. Silicon doped with electron-rich impurity is a p-type semiconductor. II. Silicon doped with an electron-rich impurity is an n-type semiconductor. III. Delocalised electrons increase the conductivity of doped silicon. IV. An electron vacancy increases the conductivity of n-type semiconductor. The correct statement about semiconductors is - 1. (I, II) 2. (II, III) 3. (III, IV) 4. (I, IV) |
| Ans. | 2 |
| Sol. |
| 186. |
The correct order of increasing bond length of C-H, C-O, C-C and C=C is- 1. 2. 3. 4. |
| Ans. | 4 |
| Sol. |
| 187. |
The pair that represents chain isomer is :- 1. 2. 3. 4. |
| Ans. | 3 |
| Sol. |
| 188. |
Consider the following resonating structures of HCOOH
The order of stability is- 1. I>II>III>IV 2. IV>I>II>III 3. I>III>II>IV 4. II>I>III>IV |
| Ans. | 1 |
| Sol. |
| 189. |
Match the type of mixture of compounds in Column I with the technique of separation/purification given in column II.
Codes A B C D 1. 3 4 1 2 2. 1 2 3 4 3. 1 4 3 2 4. 4 1 3 2 |
||||||||||
| Ans. | 1 | ||||||||||
| Sol. |
| 190. |
0.24 g of an organic compound containing phosphorous gave 0.66 g of Mg2P2O7 by the usual analysis. The percentage of phosphorous in the compound is- 1. 77% 2. 72% 3. 87% 4. 60 % |
| Ans. | 1 |
| Sol. |
| 191. |
In the following reaction,
1. 2. 3. 4. |
| Ans. | 1 |
| Sol. |
| 192. |
What is the end product of the following sequences of operations? 1. Methyl alcohol 2. Acetaldehyde 3. 4. |
| Ans. | 3 |
| Sol. |
| 193. |
Gas (A+B+C) gas mixture Gas X is- 1. Gas A + Gas B 2. Only Gas B 3. Gas B + Gas C 4. Only Gas A |
| Ans. | 4 |
| Sol. |
| 194. |
Above conversion can be achieved by: (1) Zn/H+ (2) LiAlH4 (3) Mg /(ether) then H2O (4) all of these |
| Ans. | 4 |
| Sol. |
| 195. |
(Only one enantiomer is taken) |
| Ans. | 1 |
| Sol. |
| 196. |
The main air pollutant among the following is : 1. CO 2. 3. 4. Sulphur |
| Ans. | 1 |
| Sol. |
| 197. |
If a lake is contaminated with DDT, it's highest concentration would be found in : 1. Primary consumer 2. Secondary consumer 3. Tertiary consumer 4. None of the above. |
| Ans. | 3 |
| Sol. |
| 198. |
The correct order of the packing efficiency in different types of unit cells is- 1. Fcc < Bcc < Simple cubic 2. Fcc > Bcc > Simple cubic 3. Fcc < Bcc > Simple cubic 4. Bcc < Fcc > Simple cubic
|
| Ans. | 2 |
| Sol. |
| 199. |
The edge lengths of the unit cells in terms of the radius of spheres constituting fcc, bcc, and simple cubic unit cells are respectively - 1. 2. 3. 4.
|
| Ans. | 1 |
| Sol. |
| 200. |
(i) Ge is doped with In (ii) Si is doped with B. The semiconductors formed in the above cases are : 1. (i) n-type semiconductor (ii) p-type semiconductor . 2. (i) p-type semiconductor (ii) n-type semiconductor . 3. p-type semiconductor in both the cases. 4. n-type semiconductor in both the cases. |
| Ans. | 3 |
| Sol. |
| 151. |
Two cylinders A and B of equal capacity are connected to each other via a stopcock. A contains gas at standard temperature and pressure. B is completely evacuated. The entire system is thermally insulated. The stopcock is suddenly opened. Then the change in internal energy of the gas is: 1. 0 2. 5 J 3. 1 J 4. 3 J |
| Ans. | 1 |
| Sol. |
Hint: Work done by the gas in chamber A is zero as chamber B is a vacuum(having zero pressure). Work is only done if there is external pressure.
Step 1: Find work done and heat.
|
| 152. |
A sample of 0.1 g of water at 1. 104.3 J 2. 208.7 J 3. 42.2 J 4. 84.5 J |
| Ans. | 2 |
| Sol. |
According to the first law of thermodynamics |
| 153. |
In a given process dW = 0, dQ < 0, then for the gas: 1. Temperature - increases 3. Pressure - decreases 4. Pressure - increases |
| Ans. | 3 |
| Sol. |
From the first law of thermodynamic dU < 0 Temperature decreases because U = f(T). As the temperature decreases, the pressure also decreases for an isochoric process. |
| 154. |
Figure shows the P-V diagram of an ideal gas undergoing a change of state from A to B. Four different parts I, II, III and IV as shown in the figure may lead to the same change of state. (a) Change in internal energy is the same in IV and III cases, but not in I and II. (b) Change in internal energy is the same in all four cases. (c) Work done is maximum in case I. (d) Work done is minimum in case II. (1) (b, c, d) (2) (a, d) (3) (b, c) (4) (a, c, d) |
| Ans. | 3 |
| Sol. |
(3) Hint: The internal energy is a path-dependent variable.
Step 1: Find the change in internal energy.
Change in internal energy for the process A to B,
which depends only on temperatures at A and B.
Step 2: Find the work done.
Work done for A to B,
|
| 155. |
The pressure of a monoatomic gas increases linearly from 1. 2. 3. 4. |
| Ans. | 3 |
| Sol. |
|
| 156. |
When a cycle tyre suddenly bursts, the air inside the tyre expands. This process is: |
| Ans. | 2 |
| Sol. |
Since, in the bursting of the tyre, the gas expands without any exchange of heat, so it is an adiabatic process. |
| 157. |
When a system is taken from the state a to state b along the path acb, it is found that a quantity of heat Q = 200 J is absorbed by the system and a work W = 80 J is done by it. Along the path adb, heat absorbed Q = 144 J. The work done along the path adb is:
1. 6 J 2. 12 J 3. 18 J 4. 24 J |
| Ans. | 4 |
| Sol. |
| 158. |
Which of the following is true for the molar heat capacity of an ideal gas? 1. It cannot be negative. 2. It has only two values 3. It can have any value. 4. It cannot be zero. |
| Ans. | 3 |
| Sol. |
Hint: Molar heat capacity of gas can have any value between
Step 1: Use the formula of molar heat capacity.
As
where n = number of moles, ΔQ = heat absorbed by the gas, and ΔT = rise in temperature of the gas.
Step 2: Find the molar heat capacity for the isothermal and adiabatic process.
Hence, the molar heat capacity can have any value.
|
| 159. |
An ideal gas heat engine operates in a Carnot cycle between 227ºC and 127ºC. It absorbs 6 × 104 cals of heat at higher temperatures. Amount of heat converted to work is:- (1) 4.8 × 104 cals (2) 2.4 × 104 cals (3) 1.2 × 104 cals (4) 6 × 104 cals |
| Ans. | 3 |
| Sol. |
|
| 160. |
During an experiment an ideal gas is found to obey an additional law VP2 = constant. The gas is initially at temp. T and volume V. What will be the temperature of the gas when it expands to a volume 2V? 1. 2. 3. 4. |
| Ans. | 2 |
| Sol. |
According to the given problem: VP2 = constant From the gas law, PV = nRT |
| 161. |
Compound A ( 1. 2. 3. 4. |
| Ans. | 3 |
| Sol. |
Hint: The number of moles is conserved. Step 1: Find the initial no. of moles. PV=nRT Step 2: Find the final no. of moles. Step 3: Conserve the no. of moles. |
| 162. |
The ratio of the average translatory kinetic energy of He gas molecules to 1. 2. 3. 4. 1 |
| Ans. | 4 |
| Sol. |
Hint: Average K.E. of molecules = 3/2 KBT
Step 1: Find the average kinetic energy of a molecule
Step 2: Find the average kinetic energy of molecules
|
| 163. |
When an ideal gas is compressed adiabatically, its temperature rises: the molecules on average have more kinetic energy than before. The kinetic energy increases, (1) because of collisions with moving parts of the wall only. (2) because of collisions with the entire wall. (3) because the molecules get accelerated in their motion inside the volume. (4) because of the redistribution of energy amongst the molecules. |
| Ans. | 1 |
| Sol. |
Hint: The kinetic energy of a gas depends on the collisions between the molecules. When the gas is compressed adiabatically, the total work done on the gas increases its internal energy which in turn increases the kinetic energy of gas molecules and hence, the collisions between molecules also increase. |
| 164. |
To find out degree of freedom, the correct expression is : 1. 2. 3. 4. |
| Ans. | 1 |
| Sol. |
xmlns
|
| 165. |
The figure shows a process for a gas in which pressure (P) and volume (V) of gas change. If 1. 2. 3. 4. |
| Ans. | 3 |
| Sol. |
Hint: Use
Step 1: Identify the processes
AR - Isochoric
BC - Isobaric
Step 2: Find the molar specific heats C1 and C2
|
| 166. |
The root mean square velocity of the gas molecules is 300 m/s. What will be the root mean square speed of the molecules if the atomic weight is doubled and absolute temperature is halved? 1. 300 m/s 2. 150 m/s 3. 600 m/s 4. 75 m/s |
| Ans. | 2 |
| Sol. |
Hint: Recall the formula for rms speed.
Step 1: Use formula for rms speed. |
| 167. |
At room temperature, the r.m.s. speed of the molecules of certain diatomic gas is found to be 1930 m/s. The gas is : 1. 2. 3. 4. |
| Ans. | 1 |
| Sol. |
|
| 168. |
When the gas in an open container is heated, the mean free path: 1. Increases 2. Decreases 3. Remains the same 4. Any of the above depending on the molar mass |
| Ans. | 1 |
| Sol. |
Hint: At constant volume and pressure, T
Step 1: Apply the formula of the mean free path.
As
|
| 169. |
Identify the correct definition. 1. If after every certain interval of time, a particle repeats its motion then motion is called periodic motion. 2. To and fro motion of a particle is called oscillatory motion. 3. Oscillatory motion described in terms of single sine and cosine functions is called simple harmonic motion. 4. All of the above |
| Ans. | 4 |
| Sol. |
Hint: Recall the definitions of different types of motions. Periodic motion repeats its motion after every certain interval of time. Simple harmonic motion can be described in terms of single sine or cosine functions. |
| 170. |
Displacement versus time curve for a particle executing SHM is shown in the figure. Choose the correct statement/s. 1. Phase of the oscillator is the same at t =0 s and t = 2s 2. Phase of the oscillator is the same at t =2 s and t=6s 3. Phase of the oscillator is the same at t = 1s and t=7 s 4. The phase of the oscillator is the same at t=1 s and t=5 s (1) 1, 2 and 4 (2) 1 and 3 (3) 2 and 4 (4) 3 and 4 |
| Ans. | 3 |
| Sol. |
Hint: The phase of the oscillator will be the same after each time period.
Step 1: Find the time period of SHM.
T=4s
Step 2: Assign a phase for each second.
The phase is same at t = 2 sec & 6 sec and t = 1 sec & 5 sec. |
| 171. |
A particle is executing linear S.H.M. between x = A. The time taken to go from 0 to A/2 is 1. 2. 3. 4. |
| Ans. | 1 |
| Sol. |
Let the time period of the pendulum = T Then, time to go from 0 to A = Time to go from 0 to A/2:- Displacement = Time to go from A/2 to A:- |
| 172. |
The displacement of a particle along the x-axis is given by (1) simple harmonic motion of frequency (2) simple harmonic motion of frequency (3) non-simple harmonic motion. (4) simple harmonic motion of frequency |
| Ans. | 1 |
| Sol. |
Reference: NCERT, Class-XI, Part-2 (Oscillations) |
| 173. |
Equation of simple harmonic motion is x = asin 1. 2. 3. 4. |
| Ans. | 3 |
| Sol. |
Hint: Kinetic energy is maximum at the mean position whereas potential energy is maximum at the extreme position.
Step 1: Kinetic energy and potential energy respectively are
|
| 174. |
The graph between the velocity (v) of a particle executing S.H.M. and its displacement (x) is shown in the figure. The time period of oscillation is: 1. 2. 3. 4. |
| Ans. | 4 |
| Sol. |
Hint:
Step 1: Find the maximum velocity and displacement.
Step 2: Find the time period. |
| 175. |
A pendulum has time period T. If it is taken on to another planet having acceleration due to gravity half and mass 9 times that of the earth then its time period on the other planet will be (1) (2) T (3) (4) |
| Ans. | 4 |
| Sol. |
#53947
|
| 176. |
The time period of the spring-mass system depends upon 1. the gravity of earth 2. the mass of block 3. spring constant 4. Both 2 & 3 |
| Ans. | 4 |
| Sol. |
Hint - T = Option(4) is correct.
|
| 177. |
A mass of 30 g is attached with two springs having spring constant 100 N/m and 200 N/m and other ends of springs are attached to rigid walls as shown in the given figure. The angular frequency of oscillation is 1. 2. 3. 100 rad/s 4. 200 |
| Ans. | 3 |
| Sol. |
Step 1: Check if springs are connected in series or parallel
Step 2: Find angular frequency
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| 178. |
In damped oscillations, the damping force is directly proportional to the speed of the oscillator. If amplitude becomes half of its maximum value in 1 sec, then after 2 sec, the amplitude will be: (Initial amplitude = 1. 2. 3. 4. |
| Ans. | 1 |
| Sol. |
Hint: Use the formula for the amplitude of damped oscillations.
Step 1: Use the equation for the amplitude. Step 2: Apply equation at t=2s. |
| 179. |
Which one of the following statements is true? 1. Both light and sound waves in air are transverse 2. The sound waves in the air are longitudinal while the light waves are transverse 3. Both light and sound waves in air are longitudinal 4. Both light and sound waves can travel in a vacuum |
| Ans. | 2 |
| Sol. |
In a longitudinal wave, the particles of the medium oscillate about their mean or equilibrium position along the direction of propagation of the wave itself. Sound waves are longitudinal in nature. In transverse waves, the particles of the medium oscillate about their mean or equilibrium position at right angles to the direction of propagation of the wave itself. Light waves being electromagnetic are transverse waves. |
| 180. |
Eleven tuning forks are arranged in increasing order of frequency in such a way that any two consecutive tunning forks produces 4 beats per second. The highest frequency is twice that of the lowest. The frequency is twice that of the lowest. The highest and the lowest frequencies (in Hz) are respectively 1. 100 and 50 2. 44 and 22 3. 80 and 40 4. 72 and 30 |
| Ans. | 3 |
| Sol. |
Let lowest frequency = f Then, highest frequency=f+(11-1) Now, f+40=2f Highest frequency=80 Hz Lowest frequency=40 Hz |
| 181. |
A transverse wave moves from a medium A to a medium B. In medium A, the velocity of the transverse wave is 500 ms |
| Ans. | 4 |
| Sol. |
Frequency of the wave,
|
| 182. |
Two identical piano wires kept under the same tension T have a fundamental frequency of 600 Hz. The fractional increase in the tension of one of the wires which will lead to the occurrence of 6 beats/s when both the wires oscillate together would be : (1) 0.02 (2) 0.03 (3) 0.04 (4) 0.01 |
| Ans. | 1 |
| Sol. |
Hint: The beat frequency is given by the difference of frequencies of the piano wires. Step 1: Find the relation between the tension and the frequency.
|
| 183. |
A source of sound with frequency n = 2000 Hz moves along a line at right angles to the wall with a velocity 1. Only 2. Only 3. Both 4. Neither |
| Ans. | 1 |
| Sol. |
<
Hint: Recall Doppler's effect.
Step 1: Find apparent frequency for the wall of the sound source.
Step 2: Find apparent frequency for detectors of the sound source S.
Step 3: Find apparent frequency of reflected sound from wall heard by detectors
As there is no relative motion between the detectors and the wall, the detectors will hear the sam frequency of the reflected sound.
Step 4: Check for beats.
|
| 184. |
Mark out the correct options. 1. The energy of any small part of a string remains constant in a travelling wave. 2. The energy of any small part of a string remains constant in a standing wave. 3. The energies of all the small parts of equal length are equal in a travelling wave. 4. The energies of all the small parts of equal length are equal in a standing wave. |
| Ans. | 3 |
| Sol. |
|
| 185. |
Two vibrating tuning forks produce progressive waves given by Y1 = 4sin500πt and Y2 = 2sin506πt. The number of beats produced per minute is: (1) 3 (2) 360 (3) 180 (4) 60 |
| Ans. | 3 |
| Sol. |
|
| 186. |
For a gas, 1. Diatomic 2. Mixture of diatomic and polyatomic molecules 3. Monoatomic 4. Polyatomic |
| Ans. | 3 |
| Sol. |
(c) This is the value of |
| 187. |
In a Carnot engine, when T2 = 0°C and T1 = 200°C, its efficiency is η1 and when T1 = 0°C and T2 = –200°C, its efficiency is , then what is η1 /η2 ? 1. 0.577 2. 0.733 3. 0.638 4. Can not be calculated |
| Ans. | 1 |
| Sol. |
| 188. |
If (1) (2) (3) (4) |
| Ans. | 3 |
| Sol. |
|
| 189. |
At 0°C the density of a fixed mass of a gas divided by pressure is x. At 100°C, the ratio will be: 1. 2. 3. 4. |
| Ans. | 2 |
| Sol. |
|
| 190. |
A gas undergoes the change in its thermodynamic state from A to B via two different paths as shown in the given pressure (P) versus volume (V) graph, then: 1. the temperature of the gas decreases in path 1 from A to B. 2. the heat absorbed by the gas in path 1 is greater than in path 2. 3. the heat absorbed by the gas in path 2 is greater than in path 1. 4. the change in internal energy in path 1 is greater than in path 2. |
| Ans. | 2 |
| Sol. |
Hint: Find the work done for paths.
Step 1: Find temperature change in path 1.
Step 2: Compare the work done in both paths.
Step 3: Find the change in internal energy for both paths.
|
| 191. |
In the following figures, four curves A, B, C and D are shown. The curves are: 1. isothermal for A and D while adiabatic for B and C. 2. adiabatic for A and C while isothermal for B and D. 3. isothermal for A and B while adiabatic for C and D. 4. isothermal for A and C while adiabatic for B and D. |
| Ans. | 4 |
| Sol. |
Step 1: Find the slope for the curves.
|
| 192. |
For one complete cycle of a thermodynamic process on a gas as shown in the P-V diagram, which of following is correct ? 1. 2. 3. 4. |
| Ans. | 4 |
| Sol. |
|
| 193. |
The temperature inside a refrigerator (reversible process) is t2oC and the room temperature is t1oC. The amount of heat delivered to the room for each joule of electrical energy consumed ideally will be: 1. 2. 3. 4. |
| Ans. | 2 |
| Sol. |
For a refrigerator, we know that: |
| 194. |
The velocity-time diagram of a harmonic oscillator is shown in the adjoining figure. The frequency of oscillation is (1) 25 Hz (2) 50 Hz (3) 12.25 Hz (4) 33.3 Hz |
| Ans. | 1 |
| Sol. |
|
| 195. |
Kinetic energy of a particle executing simple 1. 2. 3. 4. |
| Ans. | 2 |
| Sol. |
Hint: Recall the general equation for KE and PE Step 1: Step 2: Find time period |
| 196. |
On a smooth inclined plane, a body of mass M is attached between two springs. The other ends of the springs are fixed to firm supports. If each spring has force constant K, the period of oscillation of the body (assuming the springs as massless) is (1) (2) (3) (4) |
| Ans. | 1 |
| Sol. |
(a) |
| 197. |
The displacement x of a particle varies with time t as 1. 2. 3. 4. |
| Ans. | 4 |
| Sol. |
Hint: Use a circle diagram to find the time taken by particle to reach from
Step 1: Draw the circle diagram.
Step 2: Find the angle with the help of diagram. |
| 198. |
In an experiment with a sonometer, a tuning fork of frequency 256 Hz resonates with a length of 25 cm and another tuning fork resonates with a length of 16 cm. The tension of the string remaining constant, the frequency of the second tuning fork is - 1. 163.84 Hz 2. 400 Hz 3. 320 Hz 4. 204.8 Hz |
| Ans. | 2 |
| Sol. |
Hint: In the case of the sonometer both the ends of the string are fixed.
Step 1: At resonance, the frequency of the tuning fork is the same as the frequency of the sonometer.
The frequency of the sonometer is given as
|
| 199. |
The percentage increase in the speed of transverse waves produced in a stretched string if the tension is increased by 4%, will be: 1. 1% 2. 2% 3. 3% 4. 4% |
| Ans. | 2 |
| Sol. |
Hint: Speed of transverse wave = Step 1: Find the %age change in the speed. v = |
| 200. |
A source of sound S emitting waves of frequency 100 Hz and an observer O is located at some distance from each other. The source is moving with a speed of 19.4 ms-1 at an angle of 1. 100 Hz 2. 103 Hz 3. 106 Hz 4. 97 Hz |
| Ans. | 2 |
| Sol. |
|